buckeyegrad;977170; said:
How else is Isaiah 53 to be applied?
In the pshat interpretation, it's Israel. There is a delineation between the Diaspora Jews and those who have remained.
buckeyegrad said:
Christians are/were not unique in claiming this scripture applied to the messiah as the vast majority of Jews (its even in Talmud) also believed it did before Rashi popularized the idea that it referred to Israel itself, which the text makes an impossibility. If it is not Israel nor the messiah, who else is the suffering servant?
1) I caution you on the fallacy that Rashi invented this idea. Origen in Contra Celsus discusses that the Jews believed the Suffering Servant was Israel back in 325 CE. Furthermore, the Targum Jonathan dispells this timing issue within Jewish tradition.
2) If you're not familiar with the acronym PRDS; then I suggest you look it up. It stands for pshat, remez, drash and sod. In short, the Talmudic references you speak of regarding Isaiah 53 are in the drash sense of interpretation. In drash, there is a moral to be learned; not a literal truth. And to answer your question directly, within miDRASH, the Suffering Servant is claimed to be Moses, David, Solomon, Jeremiah, Hezekiah, Isaiah, and a few others I believe.
bgrad said:
My question of course to you regarding the salvation mechanism is how can anyone approach G-d today since the atoning sacrificies have not occurred since 70 A.D.
The same way that sins were forgiven since Cain brought an improper sacrifice: repentance.
The sacrifices are an outward expression of an inward repentant heart condition and nothing more. Please don't fall for the consideration that Jews can't be forgiven and haven't been for millenia.
bgrad said:
(and not accepted by G-d since 30 A.D.--Talmud tells us that the red cord did not turn white on Yom Kippur for the 40 years prior to the 2nd temple's destruction) if Yeshua was not the final atoning sacrifice.
Actually, this is also a fallacy for a number of reasons:
1) Jesus didn't die in 30 CE. He supposedly died in 33 CE.
2) The miracles of the Temple had been decreasing in quantity and quality since the death of Shimon HaTzeddek who lived about 3 centuries before Jesus.
3) Not all of the miracles ceased in 30CE.
4) There are other reasons for the decreasing of the miracles and these contain the following but are not limited to:
a) the hellenization of Israel.
b) the infighting amongst Jews.
c) the decepid state of the Jewish religion. By the time Jesus was crucified, the Sanhedrin wasn't even meeting in the Hall of Hewn Stone.
bgrad said:
Leviticus 17 is clear in saying that there is no forgiveness
without the shedding of blood.
Leviticus 17 is about consuming blood; not what it does on the altar. Read the entire chapter.
bgrad said:
So Torah itself shows that if Yeshua (or some other mechanism) does not provide final salvation, then no one has it today.
Sorry, but your conclusion is false because it's based on a false premise.
bgrad said:
I assume you are asking for the three "persons" since you know that Elohim shows that there is a plurality in G-d. Even when it is declared in Deuteronomy that G-d is echad, it uses the plural name Elohim for Him.
Actually, Elohim, isn't a plural word when it refers to G-d. It's a proper name. The only time that elohim is plural is when it refers to human elements (i.e. Psalm 82).
But to clarify my question, I will ask: how do you determine there are three and only three persons in the godhead?
bgrad said:
So having established that there is plurality in the One, why would it be sound to believe there is three "persons" and not more or less?
Slow down. You didn't establish it. Your premise is based on a misunderstanding Hebrew. In Hebrew, plurality is determined by not just the noun, but also the surrounding terms.
bgrad said:
Well, the first clue might be in Isaiah 6:3, where it is said the seraphim cry Holy, Holy, Holy before the thrown of G-d. Why three times? Granted, not a deadlock argument, but a beginning.
Sorry, but it's not even a start. Just because something is chanted three times does not allow for the conclusion to be drawn that there are three persons.
bgrad said:
Next, I would turn to the Ruah of G-d, which is mentioned throughout the Tanakh. So we can establish that there is the breath of G-d (Holy Spirit).
Ruach simply means spirit. Spirit does not incline itself to separate "person"hood.
bgrad said:
Then we have the theophanies of the Jewish Bible, where G-d does appear in fleshly form (to Abraham at Mamre, wrestled with Jacob).
Are you sure about that?
bgrad said:
So we have a precedence for G-d in a fleshly form.
If you would like to go through them one by one; then I'm game. Just so you're aware.
bgrad said:
So, there are hints to the triun nature of G-d throughout the Tanakh.
Actually, you haven't shown anything about triune natures. You've shown the opportunity for plurality, but nothing that is set up as "three".
bgrad said:
I believe the New Testament is a commentary on the Old Testament, illuminated by the Spirit of G-d and taught to us by G-d in flesh form, so we have a more clearer picture of this dynamic of His plurality presented there, but by no means was it a "new" teaching of Yeshua or his followers, but rather a clarification of what was occurring in the past.
As any Christian should feel. The problem is that it stands completely contradictory to the Tanakh and Judaism. Literal anthropomorphism is idolatrous from a Jewish POV.