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OFFICIAL: Biblical/Theology Discussion thread

lvbuckeye;789238; said:
the Bible specifically mentions an age of accountability. i don't think they go straight to heaven, and i don't think they go straight to hell.
really? hmm never heard that.. i dont know.. not consitent with my idea of God being love. But neither are some stories from the OT.. namely the angel of death, sodom & gomorroah, the flood, etc.

I wonder if God will dig my block O tat.. probably not.. dammit haha
 
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Bleed S & G;789385; said:
really? hmm never heard that.. i dont know.. not consitent with my idea of God being love. But neither are some stories from the OT.. namely the angel of death, sodom & gomorroah, the flood, etc.

Lvbuckeye is correct that there is an age of accountability. I wish I could say more about the topic, but it is one of those issues I always mean to get to, but end up sidetracked due to other ones.


However, I find your wording interesting in saying "not consistent with my idea of God being love". Exactly what does this mean? Are you saying that God must fit your definition of love? Is there some standard regarding love that God must adhere to? If so, then wouldn't that standard be something greater than God?

Instead of this option, shouldn't we base our understanding of love on God? Otherwise, you end up saying love is God, which is very different than saying God is love. I know I've used this quote before, but C.S. Lewis said it best:

"Love begins to be a demon the moment he begins to be a god."
 
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Buckeyeskickbuttocks;788057; said:
Those who knew Jesus.... Like... Philip? Mary? Thomas? other "gnostics" who's books were left out of the bible by some council of men who didn't like what those Gospels said, for whatever reason. As you no doubt agree, history is written by the winners... Applying that to Christianity in a "historical" way, if other men had been in charge, I can see a Christianity that would include, say, the book of Philip and not Matthew... I'm betting you don't see it that way, and I'm also certain that because of your studies you have a rational and reasons why Philip was exluded and Matthew was included... but, I don't see how you can get around my observation that that decision was a decision, ultimately, of man.

I wanted to jump on this one paragraph BKB because you raised the gnostics, which I will argue can never be considered Christian.

First, except for the Gospel of Thomas, scholars are essentially united in saying that those writings originate after the first century; hence it would be impossible for the people whose names they have been attributed to could have really written them. As for the Gospel of Thomas, there is division whether or not it was written in the first century or later, but I believe there is strong internal evidence in the writing to suggest a later date similar to the other gnostic writings.

Second, the problem with the gnostic writers is that they rejected the Old Testament to the point of calling YHWY an evil god. To reject the Old Testament and to call YHWY and evil god separate from the God that sent Jesus is to deny Christ's real identity, which beyond being divine, was that of a devout Jew who called for righteous living as defined by YHWY. Therefore, it was wise for the early Christians to reject the gnostic writings; and hence, it was not a political decision to not include gnostic heresy, but a spiritual and theological one that makes perfect sense.

Third, the formation of the New Testament makes a really interesting topic and is one on which I have taught at my church during Wednesday night bible studies. If you are anyone is interested in hearing my lecture on it, PM me and I will send you a link to it. The key points however are that 1) the New Testament writings were already being used and the 27 books were essentially established before the church councils; 2) the evolution of the New Testament was a process of discovery/recognition rather than a process of judgment; 3) the two standards used in the discovery process were the authorship and coherence with the Old Testament.
 
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buckeyegrad;790197; said:
I wanted to jump on this one paragraph BKB because you raised the gnostics, which I will argue can never be considered Christian.

First, except for the Gospel of Thomas, scholars are essentially united in saying that those writings originate after the first century; hence it would be impossible for the people whose names they have been attributed to could have really written them. As for the Gospel of Thomas, there is division whether or not it was written in the first century or later, but I believe there is strong internal evidence in the writing to suggest a later date similar to the other gnostic writings.

My immediate observation, taken in the context of the point I was hoping to drive at when I brought up the Gnostics at all, is illustrated with your remark:

"...scholars are essentially united in saying that..."

So, what I'm really getting at, or at least trying to is... The Bible is "written" by scholars approval or decision to include... It is a book of man because the decisions on what should go in it were made by men. Educated men? Sure. Men who were able to give a rationale for exclusion? Sure. But still, just men.

On the issue of who wrote what.... I find it persuasive that the Gospels were likely not written at the hand of any of the people who's names they are attributed (the best example, it seems, being John - which your scholars can't seem to agree who it was written by) and instead are examples of someone (or group of someones) deciding to write down what was being passed along orally.

What we do know, even assuming scholarship dating is correct, is that NONE of the Gospels were written within 30 years of Jesus' death. (About 60CE) I find that terribly odd. Certainly not odd enough to "prove" anything, but sufficiently odd for me to question.... One, why not write the "good news" sooner? My guess is because talking to people about it was the prefered meathod of dissemination (most the populace being unable to read). IE, support for my suggestion of "oral tradition" Likewise, 30 years is a long time. While I have memories dating to 30 years ago, they are open to much error. Admittedly, my 30 year old memories make me 6 years old when the events occured (and no doubt the gospel writeres, if witnesses to Jesus were certainly older than 6....), but even highly signifigant events in my life, like the birth of my first child, my marriage, etc.... I do not enjoy Perfect memory of these events either... and those things happend only a handful of years ago. What I'm saying is, even if we assume these writters were actual contemporaries of Christ.... the time frame involved between witnessing and transcription cuts against believability (to me). And, of course, this is to say nothing of how one's own ideas change over time... I certainly don't think of things the same today as I did when I was.. 18... 24.. 30.. I'm pretty sure by the time I'm 60, I'll view my beliefs of today as "immature" or "underdeveloped" in some sense. If I wrote a book of my religion today, it would not resemble the book I would have written 5 years ago... nor would it resemble the book I'd write 25 years from now.

Second, the problem with the gnostic writers is that they rejected the Old Testament to the point of calling YHWY an evil god. To reject the Old Testament and to call YHWY and evil god separate from the God that sent Jesus is to deny Christ's real identity, which beyond being divine, was that of a devout Jew who called for righteous living as defined by YHWY. Therefore, it was wise for the early Christians to reject the gnostic writings; and hence, it was not a political decision to not include gnostic heresy, but a spiritual and theological one that makes perfect sense.

I must confess, I have not read the Gnostic Gospels to any level of "expertiese" and I certainly have not set out to argue they should be included in the Bible. My point isn't the Gnostics are "right." My point is, if we assume the Gnostics had "seized control" of the Papacy, the Bible would look very different. Rather than have a Christianity that is in accord with the OT, we'd have a Christianity that either A) was twisted in a manner to be looked upon as in accord with Christinaity (and idea that I'm sure you'd reject as even possible) or B) something completely apart from the OT... say... like Buddhism (meaning, it has no foundational basis on the OT).

I guess I don't see the impossibility of either result, but particularly the second. That Christianity was developed to accept the OT as amended by the NT is equally as unsurprising to me. While I must concede the the melding, if you will, of OT and NT ideas might lend credibility to the truth of the matter asserted, it is well short of proof of the matter asserted. And, of course, we are all free to make our cedibility determinations on what we deem sufficient ourselves.

For me, I have to ask (along with those questions already noted), what evidence is there that John, Mark, Matthew, Luke were not writing their accounts with a preconcieved notion in mind? This is a critical issue, I think. That is to say, I would seriously doubt any of these authors was ignorant of the OT. In fact, I'd bet that these guys were well versed in what the OT predicted. Credibility deteriotion, in my mind, occurs where these men were primed to write a history of Jesus which conformed to what was previously predicted. ... I mean, John, even makes the admission that he's interested in "Selling Jesus"

John 20:30-31

these [miralces] are written down so you will come to believe that Jesus is the Son of God — and by believing this have life in his name

So, why should I not believe he's trying to support his rationale with any view he can, including conforming Jesus the man to the Christ predicted in the OT?

I mean it like this... suppose you and I are witness to the same event, Troy Smith throwing a touchdown pass to Tedd Ginn, Jr. You and I set out to describe this event. You want to tell the tale as a journalist might (in theory).. just the facts and you write that the TD pass covered 61 yards. I, on the other hand, want to take the angle that this event was predicted by Nostradamus. Lets also assume I am able to identify a quatrain which "supports" the notion.... and for one reason or another, I say the pass was 71 yards. what are we to believe? You? You don't have the authority of a prior prediction backing you up. Me? While I have a prior prediction backing me up, I don't see any reason to accept that Nostradmus' prediction without analysis... maybe BKB is a Nostradamus affeciando... maybe BKB wants to show Nostradamus to be divine? Maybe BKB has an agenda? Maybe he doesnt.... but... it's a valid investigation, and it goes towards the heart of the problem... was the pass 61 or 71 yards? 2,000 years from now, no one will have any possibility of knowing.... and you and I are both eyewitnesses having written down our "honest" accounts of what we saw.... Which story are we to believe?

The answer is, there is no answer, as either could be right. What we CAN conclude is, something happened, and that Troy Smith, in all likelihood, threw a TD pass of some distance to Ted Ginn Jr.... I would readily concede that Jesus the man existed and preached a "new" religion. But, so what... that's not particularly uncommon.

I don't know if I've illustrated my point well enough, I hope I have.....

Third, the formation of the New Testament makes a really interesting topic and is one on which I have taught at my church during Wednesday night bible studies. If you are anyone is interested in hearing my lecture on it, PM me and I will send you a link to it. The key points however are that 1) the New Testament writings were already being used and the 27 books were essentially established before the church councils; 2) the evolution of the New Testament was a process of discovery/recognition rather than a process of judgment; 3) the two standards used in the discovery process were the authorship and coherence with the Old Testament.

That does sound interesting.
 
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buckeyegrad;790157; said:
Lvbuckeye is correct that there is an age of accountability. I wish I could say more about the topic, but it is one of those issues I always mean to get to, but end up sidetracked due to other ones.


However, I find your wording interesting in saying "not consistent with my idea of God being love". Exactly what does this mean? Are you saying that God must fit your definition of love? Is there some standard regarding love that God must adhere to? If so, then wouldn't that standard be something greater than God?

Instead of this option, shouldn't we base our understanding of love on God? Otherwise, you end up saying love is God, which is very different than saying God is love. I know I've used this quote before, but C.S. Lewis said it best:

"Love begins to be a demon the moment he begins to be a god."
What i meant by "not consistent with my idea of God being love" is then God must not be a loving God. Any God, in my book, that condemns people that had no knowledge is not loving.. but interesting thought that God must fit my defination of love. well i don't know what love is, but i can see why what i said came across that way.. hell even my explanation above is sort-of that way to.

let me ask you & lv this, what about a man who dies of old age.. born & raised in the rain forrest with no knowledge of any relgion, let alone ours.. he's damned to hell? I don't think a God who is defined as love, would do this. maybe my idea of love is off..
 
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Bleed S & G;788116; said:
I may have to disagree with paul here then. If we create our own reality through our perceptions, who is to say whats wrong & right? I mean, how can a person who was born & raised in a village in the rain forest, with no knowledge of what the OT commandments were (etc. what we believe to be Gods rules) how can he be judged for murder if it wasn't wrong at all in his mind?

What about a new born, do they go to hell since they didnt accept Christs message? Or lets say a 3 year old who has sinned? An aborted fetis?

Catholics seems to agree with you? Not Catholic myself but maybe someone is and can say if this is correct or not.

http://www.cuf.org/faithfacts/details_view.asp?ffID=146

"Throughout the history of the Church, the Magisterium has accepted and synthesized these teachings. Recognizing that God will judge our hearts according to the gifts we have received, invincible ignorance?that is, ignorance which cannot be overcome by ordinary means?tempers divine justice. Those who have knowledge of the truth are expected to accept it. Those who have not been given this gift will be judged according to the law written on their hearts."

And then some more which seems to address your argument.

"There are, of course, those who are struggling with invincible ignorance about our most holy religion. Sincerely observing the natural law and its precepts inscribed by God on all hearts and ready to obey God, they live honest lives and are able to attain eternal life by the efficacious virtue of divine light and grace. Because God knows, searches, and clearly understands the minds, hearts, thoughts, and nature of all, His supreme kindness and clemency do not permit anyone at all who is not guilty of deliberate sin to suffer eternal punishments."
 
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buckeyegrad;790157; said:
Lvbuckeye is correct that there is an age of accountability. I wish I could say more about the topic, but it is one of those issues I always mean to get to, but end up sidetracked due to other ones.


However, I find your wording interesting in saying "not consistent with my idea of God being love". Exactly what does this mean? Are you saying that God must fit your definition of love? Is there some standard regarding love that God must adhere to? If so, then wouldn't that standard be something greater than God?

Instead of this option, shouldn't we base our understanding of love on God? Otherwise, you end up saying love is God, which is very different than saying God is love. I know I've used this quote before, but C.S. Lewis said it best:

"Love begins to be a demon the moment he begins to be a god."

the old potter and clay analogy still rings true.
 
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Buckeyeskickbuttocks;790274; said:
My immediate observation, taken in the context of the point I was hoping to drive at when I brought up the Gnostics at all, is illustrated with your remark:

"...scholars are essentially united in saying that..."

So, what I'm really getting at, or at least trying to is... The Bible is "written" by scholars approval or decision to include... It is a book of man because the decisions on what should go in it were made by men. Educated men? Sure. Men who were able to give a rationale for exclusion? Sure. But still, just men.

On the issue of who wrote what.... I find it persuasive that the Gospels were likely not written at the hand of any of the people who's names they are attributed (the best example, it seems, being John - which your scholars can't seem to agree who it was written by) and instead are examples of someone (or group of someones) deciding to write down what was being passed along orally.

What we do know, even assuming scholarship dating is correct, is that NONE of the Gospels were written within 30 years of Jesus' death. (About 60CE) I find that terribly odd. Certainly not odd enough to "prove" anything, but sufficiently odd for me to question.... One, why not write the "good news" sooner? My guess is because talking to people about it was the prefered meathod of dissemination (most the populace being unable to read). IE, support for my suggestion of "oral tradition" Likewise, 30 years is a long time. While I have memories dating to 30 years ago, they are open to much error. Admittedly, my 30 year old memories make me 6 years old when the events occured (and no doubt the gospel writeres, if witnesses to Jesus were certainly older than 6....), but even highly signifigant events in my life, like the birth of my first child, my marriage, etc.... I do not enjoy Perfect memory of these events either... and those things happend only a handful of years ago. What I'm saying is, even if we assume these writters were actual contemporaries of Christ.... the time frame involved between witnessing and transcription cuts against believability (to me). And, of course, this is to say nothing of how one's own ideas change over time... I certainly don't think of things the same today as I did when I was.. 18... 24.. 30.. I'm pretty sure by the time I'm 60, I'll view my beliefs of today as "immature" or "underdeveloped" in some sense. If I wrote a book of my religion today, it would not resemble the book I would have written 5 years ago... nor would it resemble the book I'd write 25 years from now.



I must confess, I have not read the Gnostic Gospels to any level of "expertiese" and I certainly have not set out to argue they should be included in the Bible. My point isn't the Gnostics are "right." My point is, if we assume the Gnostics had "seized control" of the Papacy, the Bible would look very different. Rather than have a Christianity that is in accord with the OT, we'd have a Christianity that either A) was twisted in a manner to be looked upon as in accord with Christinaity (and idea that I'm sure you'd reject as even possible) or B) something completely apart from the OT... say... like Buddhism (meaning, it has no foundational basis on the OT).

I guess I don't see the impossibility of either result, but particularly the second. That Christianity was developed to accept the OT as amended by the NT is equally as unsurprising to me. While I must concede the the melding, if you will, of OT and NT ideas might lend credibility to the truth of the matter asserted, it is well short of proof of the matter asserted. And, of course, we are all free to make our cedibility determinations on what we deem sufficient ourselves.

For me, I have to ask (along with those questions already noted), what evidence is there that John, Mark, Matthew, Luke were not writing their accounts with a preconcieved notion in mind? This is a critical issue, I think. That is to say, I would seriously doubt any of these authors was ignorant of the OT. In fact, I'd bet that these guys were well versed in what the OT predicted. Credibility deteriotion, in my mind, occurs where these men were primed to write a history of Jesus which conformed to what was previously predicted. ... I mean, John, even makes the admission that he's interested in "Selling Jesus"

John 20:30-31

these [miralces] are written down so you will come to believe that Jesus is the Son of God ? and by believing this have life in his name

So, why should I not believe he's trying to support his rationale with any view he can, including conforming Jesus the man to the Christ predicted in the OT?

I mean it like this... suppose you and I are witness to the same event, Troy Smith throwing a touchdown pass to Tedd Ginn, Jr. You and I set out to describe this event. You want to tell the tale as a journalist might (in theory).. just the facts and you write that the TD pass covered 61 yards. I, on the other hand, want to take the angle that this event was predicted by Nostradamus. Lets also assume I am able to identify a quatrain which "supports" the notion.... and for one reason or another, I say the pass was 71 yards. what are we to believe? You? You don't have the authority of a prior prediction backing you up. Me? While I have a prior prediction backing me up, I don't see any reason to accept that Nostradmus' prediction without analysis... maybe BKB is a Nostradamus affeciando... maybe BKB wants to show Nostradamus to be divine? Maybe BKB has an agenda? Maybe he doesnt.... but... it's a valid investigation, and it goes towards the heart of the problem... was the pass 61 or 71 yards? 2,000 years from now, no one will have any possibility of knowing.... and you and I are both eyewitnesses having written down our "honest" accounts of what we saw.... Which story are we to believe?

The answer is, there is no answer, as either could be right. What we CAN conclude is, something happened, and that Troy Smith, in all likelihood, threw a TD pass of some distance to Ted Ginn Jr.... I would readily concede that Jesus the man existed and preached a "new" religion. But, so what... that's not particularly uncommon.

I don't know if I've illustrated my point well enough, I hope I have.....



That does sound interesting.
first off, i admit that i didn't read the whole post. i have to ask you a question. you say that you believe in God. now, the question that i have is, is your God fallible? because my God isn't. how much faith do you have in your god? how can you have faith in a God, but not even trust that He could get His Word written without it getting screwed up? i'm serious. the God that i believe in is quite powerful enough to ensure that the men copying it down kept the message true.
 
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Bleed S & G;790376; said:
What i meant by "not consistent with my idea of God being love" is then God must not be a loving God. Any God, in my book, that condemns people that had no knowledge is not loving.. but interesting thought that God must fit my defination of love. well i don't know what love is, but i can see why what i said came across that way.. hell even my explanation above is sort-of that way to.

let me ask you & lv this, what about a man who dies of old age.. born & raised in the rain forrest with no knowledge of any relgion, let alone ours.. he's damned to hell? I don't think a God who is defined as love, would do this. maybe my idea of love is off..
they are judged on the condition of their heart.

Romans 2:11For there is no respect of persons with God. 12For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
13(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
14For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another; )
 
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lvbuckeye;790553; said:
first off, i admit that i didn't read the whole post. i have to ask you a question. you say that you believe in God. now, the question that i have is, is your God fallible? because my God isn't.
No, my God isn't fallible.

how much faith do you have in your god?
infinite.

how can you have faith in a God, but not even trust that He could get His Word written without it getting screwed up? i'm serious.
A legitimate observation. I don't think I'm being understood here.. I don't think God can't be trusted to get his Word out correctly... You're, of course, assuming that God even set out to do so with the Bible in the first place. If, however, God never set out to do so, then my God's fallibility isn't challeged with the truth of false nature of the Bible.

I think the Bible is a lot of things.. a lot of good things too... but I don't think it's the Word of God. I think it's, at least in part, the word of Man thinking about God. I think it's a "history" (or the writing down of oral traditions)... but, I don't think it's God doing the talking.

On what rationale - and without quoting the Bible, if you could - does God need to write a book, assuming you do believe in an infallible God.

the God that i believe in is quite powerful enough to ensure that the men copying it down kept the message true.

Even in the face of demonstrated errors of language convesion and transcription? One copy of the text not agreeing with another copy of the same text cuts against your God's power of assurance. Even if it's a human typo... (Yes, I realize the guy I linked is arguing in favor of the Bible... just used it as a source of "believer" who is willing to recognize that our Bibles are NOT the unadulterated WORD of God.)

See question above.... for what purpose would God even need to write such a book? Aren't there options available to him which would be more inclusive? I mean, lots of folks can't read, for example, why should God hide himself in the bindings of a book from these illiterates? Does God not care to reveal himself to aborignes, for example?

What's so hard to believe in my way of thinking about an "infallible" God who holds himself out in the universe NOT in the pages of some manuscript, but as the very fiber of the universe itself?

Finally, why are there so many different authoritive texts allegedly written/inspired by God? And ... why don't these texts agree exactly?
 
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lvbuckeye;790553; said:
first off, i admit that i didn't read the whole post. i have to ask you a question. you say that you believe in God. now, the question that i have is, is your God fallible? because my God isn't. how much faith do you have in your god? how can you have faith in a God, but not even trust that He could get His Word written without it getting screwed up? i'm serious. the God that i believe in is quite powerful enough to ensure that the men copying it down kept the message true.
And a Muslim can say the exact same thing for the Qur'an. Who is right? You both can't be.
The problem here is that you're trying to have a rational discussion based on an irrational concept - faith. Bottom line is that the Bible is supported by as much evidence as the Qur'an or any other holy book. Its validity is only supported by the faith of its followers, which ultimately is just irrational belief without proof. And based on that foundation, my faith in the Flying Spaghetti Monster is as valid as yours in God.
 
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And a Muslim can say the exact same thing for the Qur'an. Who is right? You both can't be.
The problem here is that you're trying to have a rational discussion based on an irrational concept - faith. Bottom line is that the Bible is supported by as much evidence as the Qur'an or any other holy book. Its validity is only supported by the faith of its followers, which ultimately is just irrational belief without proof. And based on that foundation, my faith in the Flying Spaghetti Monster is as valid as yours in God.
Is what you're saying really true, though? I really believe you must take into account the evidence. Muslims base their faith on an Abrahamic line from Ismael while the Jews trace their heritage to Abraham through Isaac. Jews and Muslims both claim their line was the Child of God's promise to Abraham that his line would be God's people. Obviously seeing my bias: if either one were true, the one more likely to be true would be the one that kept history of God's promise to Abraham the whole time and not the one that claimed 3000 years later that their line was the true Abrahamic line? You see my point? While their definately is faith involved validity is still part of the equation.
 
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I don't have any idea how citations to a linegae gives any "evidence" or authority to a belief.

If I tell you my family tree, are you more likely to believe me when I say I think the sun will rise tomorrow?

As I've been suggesting... these appeals to "who agrees with me" (here, a citation to a "holy lineage" or something) is not evidence of God... it's people trying to impress other people by appealing to some external "authority" for what they're trying to say.
 
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t_BuckeyeScott;790621; said:
Is what you're saying really true, though? I really believe you must take into account the evidence. Muslims base their faith on an Abrahamic line from Ismael while the Jews trace their heritage to Abraham through Isaac. Jews and Muslims both claim their line was the Child of God's promise to Abraham that his line would be God's people. Obviously seeing my bias: if either one were true, the one more likely to be true would be the one that kept history of God's promise to Abraham the whole time and not the one that claimed 3000 years later that their line was the true Abrahamic line? You see my point? While their definately is faith involved validity is still part of the equation.

they are both Abraham's line. even though Abraham demonstrated a lack of faith and slept with Sarah's handmaiden Haggar, God still promised to bless those descendants and make them a great people. but then there is the whole "Jacob have i loved; Esau have i hated" argument.
 
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Do you understand that Jews and Muslims both claim that God promised Abraham that his line would be God's chosen people?

Do you understand that the Jews claim that Isaac was the child of that promise? That Muslims claim Ismael was?

So it lends no credibility to you whatsoever given choice between which clan is God's chosen people the one who's claim has stood since Abraham or the one that came 3000 years later?

Granted on their own that doesn't prove either one but I was trying to make the point there is evidence you can base your choice of religon on. Its not just I was born to Christian parents therefor I'm a Christian. If there was no evidence seperating religons why would anyone switch at all?
 
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